[Skeptic-i]

Originally Posted by LeatherTrumpet

slavery in the first century is not the slavery that you are mistakenly getting your knickers in a twist about.

LT, who said slavery in the first century was the same as slavery in later centuries [when Christians ruled the roost]? - I certainly made no such claim. Nor did I get my knickers in a twist by confusing the two. Of course, slavery was slightly different in earlier times; Pagans, including those of the early Roman Empire, often gave their slaves a few more privileges - including chances of bettering their situation and purchasing their freedom. Of course, there were also the Stoic philosophers[pre-christian] who outright condemned slavery as immoral. But then Christianity came along and most of the privileges - and condemnation of slavery - become lost. Increasingly, slaves had fewer rights while under Christian rule. They were forced to accept their lot in life with humility (Ephesians 6:5-8) and please their masters in everything (Colossians 3:22, Titus 2:9,) - even if those masters treat them harshly (1 Peter 2:18). A result of the Christian attitude towards slavery soon made the Church the largest slave owners in the Roman Empire. As time went by, Christians[with the exception of Quakers] increasingly found more reasons to enslave others - a trend that continued through to the abolitionist movements(where Quakers, non-believers - and heretical Christians) fought for change.

LT, I could go into much greater depth for you - and discuss biblical and traditional Christian attitudes towards women. But you obviously aren't capable of serious, intellectual discussion. So I wont waste any further time with you.