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Old 10-05-2015, 01:31 PM #1
user104658 user104658 is offline
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Join Date: Jul 2013
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JoshBB View Post
In this scenario the conditions would be that they would be having sex 'because he is wealthy' and so that is what they agreed to. Whether or not that is morally correct is another argument, but I would say that this would be rape. Not as severe as other types but rape nonetheless.
I will agree with you ONLY on the premise that the woman has explicitly stated before engaging in sexual intercourse that they are only doing it because they believe the man to be wealthy.

Which is a technicality; I doubt that has happened very often, if ever.
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