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Originally posted by Mrluvaluva

Can I ask you a question? Black people were enslaved by white men. When there was white slavery, were they enslaved by black men?

Also, have white people ever been excluded like apartheid did to black people?

I don't undertand the distinction between whether or not the enslavers need to be black for the slavery to cause an greater or lesser amount of continued offence to the descendents of the enslaved...

slavery and exclusion was practiced by Romans, Huns, Goths, Mongols, etc etc,

and when we talk about exclusion do we include the Indian caste system when we talk about apartheid ? - as I never seem to see the two coupled together

But if we are going to start talking about slavery, then I think the Romans and Vikings have a hell to answer for in my part of the world.

or is that now deemed too long ago ?
at what point does too long ago start ?

and can I claim damages from the Norwegian and Italian Governments ?

What politician will jump on that paticular bandwagon ?